Muscular Tissue Practice Quiz (44 questions)

All questions and answers

1. Which three types of muscular tissue are found in the body?

Cardiac, smooth, and epithelial tissue
Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle
Skeletal, cardiac, and connective tissue
Skeletal, smooth, and nervous tissue

Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle

Explanation

The three muscular tissue types are skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle. The alternatives incorrectly substitute connective, nervous, or epithelial tissue or omit one of the three types.

2. Which set of physiological properties is shared by skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle?

Excitability, voluntary control, contractility, conductivity, and elasticity
Excitability, striation, contractility, extensibility, and elasticity
Conductivity, contractility, extensibility, striation, and voluntary control
Excitability, conductivity, contractility, extensibility, and elasticity

Excitability, conductivity, contractility, extensibility, and elasticity

Explanation

All muscle types share excitability, conductivity, contractility, extensibility, and elasticity. Striation and voluntary control are not shared properties of every muscle type.

3. A muscle tissue sample is striated and usually attached to bones; which classification and control pattern best fit it?

Smooth muscle, usually under conscious control
Skeletal muscle, controlled involuntarily
Skeletal muscle, usually under conscious control
Cardiac muscle, usually under conscious control

Skeletal muscle, usually under conscious control

Explanation

Skeletal muscle is striated, usually attached to bones, and usually subject to conscious control. Cardiac and smooth muscle are involuntary, while smooth muscle is not striated.

4. A histologist traces a connective-tissue layer around one individual muscle fiber. Which layer is it?

Perimysium
Epimysium
Endomysium
Tendon

Endomysium

Explanation

Endomysium surrounds an individual muscle fiber. Perimysium surrounds a fascicle, epimysium surrounds the entire muscle, and a tendon attaches muscle to bone matrix.

5. In a skeletal muscle, a connective-tissue sheath surrounds a bundle of muscle fibers. Which sheath is present?

Epimysium
Endomysium
Sarcolemma
Perimysium

Perimysium

Explanation

Perimysium surrounds a fascicle, which is a bundle of muscle fibers. Endomysium wraps an individual fiber, epimysium surrounds the whole muscle, and the sarcolemma is a muscle fiber's plasma membrane.

6. A connective-tissue covering encloses an entire skeletal muscle and separates it from neighboring muscles. What is the covering called?

Perimysium
Epimysium
Endomysium
Tendon

Epimysium

Explanation

Epimysium surrounds an entire muscle and separates it from neighboring muscles. Perimysium and endomysium surround fascicles and individual fibers, respectively; a tendon attaches muscle to bone.

7. A researcher follows the structural hierarchy inward from a muscle to the contractile units within its fibers. Which sequence is correct?

Muscle, fascicles, fibers, myofilaments, myofibrils; sarcomeres lie within myofilaments
Muscle, fascicles, fibers, myofibrils, myofilaments; sarcomeres lie within myofibrils
Muscle, myofibrils, fascicles, fibers, myofilaments; sarcomeres lie within fascicles
Muscle, fibers, fascicles, myofilaments, myofibrils; sarcomeres lie within myofibrils

Muscle, fascicles, fibers, myofibrils, myofilaments; sarcomeres lie within myofibrils

Explanation

A muscle contains fascicles, each made of muscle fibers; fibers contain myofibrils composed of myofilaments, and sarcomeres are contractile units within myofibrils. The incorrect sequences reverse or misplace levels of this hierarchy.

8. What structural feature distinguishes the middle of a thick filament from the regions toward its ends?

A head-free bare zone lies in the middle
A head-free bare zone lies at both ends
A dense array of myosin heads lies in the middle
A bare zone with actin active sites lies in the middle

A head-free bare zone lies in the middle

Explanation

Thick filaments are made of myosin molecules whose heads project outward, leaving a head-free bare zone in the middle. The alternatives misplace the bare zone, attribute it to actin, or put heads in the central region.

9. Which description correctly identifies the structure and binding role of a thin filament?

Two intertwined actin strands with subunit active sites that bind myosin heads
Two intertwined actin strands with subunit active sites that bind calcium
Two intertwined myosin strands with subunit active sites that bind actin heads
One actin strand paired with one myosin strand and shared binding sites

Two intertwined actin strands with subunit active sites that bind myosin heads

Explanation

Thin filaments contain two intertwined strands of fibrous actin, and globular actin subunits have active sites that bind myosin heads. Myosin forms thick filaments, while calcium binds troponin rather than actin's active sites.

10. Calcium is released into a muscle fiber's sarcoplasm. Which sequence allows myosin heads to access actin's active sites?

Calcium binds troponin, which shifts tropomyosin over the active sites
Calcium binds tropomyosin, which shifts troponin away from the active sites
Calcium binds troponin, which shifts tropomyosin away from the active sites
Calcium binds actin, which shifts troponin away from the active sites

Calcium binds troponin, which shifts tropomyosin away from the active sites

Explanation

Calcium binding changes troponin's shape, moving tropomyosin away from actin's active sites and permitting contraction. The alternatives confuse which protein binds calcium or reverse the movement that exposes the sites.

11. What is the sarcomere, the functional contractile unit of a muscle fiber?

The myofibril segment from one Z disc to the next
The muscle-fiber segment from one end to the other
The myofibril segment from one M line to the next
The myofibril segment from one A band to the next

The myofibril segment from one Z disc to the next

Explanation

A sarcomere is the segment of a myofibril from one Z disc to the next and is the functional contractile unit of a muscle fiber. The alternatives use different boundaries or refer to a much larger structure.

12. A single motor neuron branches to several skeletal muscle fibers. Which term describes that neuron together with all the fibers it innervates?

A muscle fiber
A neuromuscular junction
A motor unit
A whole muscle

A motor unit

Explanation

A motor unit comprises one nerve fiber and every muscle fiber it innervates. A muscle fiber is one target cell, a neuromuscular junction is a synapse, and a whole muscle contains many motor units.

13. What is the name for the synapse where a nerve fiber meets a skeletal muscle fiber?

Motor unit
Sarcolemma
Interneuronal synapse
Neuromuscular junction

Neuromuscular junction

Explanation

The neuromuscular junction is the synapse between a nerve fiber and a skeletal muscle fiber. A motor unit is a nerve fiber plus its innervated fibers, the sarcolemma is the muscle-cell membrane, and an interneuronal synapse connects neurons.

14. A researcher examines the region where a motor axon contacts a muscle fiber. Which description identifies the neuromuscular junction's key structural components?

An acetylcholine-containing sarcolemma, a cleft within the axon, and a Schwann cell between the two membranes
An acetylcholine-containing axon terminal, a cleft beside the sarcolemma, and an enveloping Schwann cell
A potassium-containing axon terminal, a cleft beside the sarcolemma, and a Schwann cell that releases neurotransmitter
A receptor-filled axon terminal, a cleft inside the muscle fiber, and a Schwann cell beneath the sarcolemma

An acetylcholine-containing axon terminal, a cleft beside the sarcolemma, and an enveloping Schwann cell

Explanation

The junction includes an axon terminal with acetylcholine vesicles, a synaptic cleft between the terminal and sarcolemma, and a Schwann cell that envelops and isolates it. The distractors relocate the vesicles or cleft, or assign neurotransmitter release to the Schwann cell.

15. A nerve impulse reaches a skeletal muscle junction, but the released acetylcholine is rapidly broken down in the basal lamina. Which sequence normally describes transmission at this junction?

Acetylcholine binds receptors on junctional folds, enters the cleft, and is then released by acetylcholinesterase
Acetylcholine enters the cleft, binds receptors on junctional folds, and is then broken down by acetylcholinesterase
Acetylcholinesterase enters the cleft, binds receptors on junctional folds, and then releases acetylcholine
Acetylcholine enters the cleft, binds receptors on the axon terminal, and is then broken down by the Schwann cell

Acetylcholine enters the cleft, binds receptors on junctional folds, and is then broken down by acetylcholinesterase

Explanation

A nerve impulse triggers acetylcholine release into the cleft, where it binds receptors on the sarcolemma's junctional folds; acetylcholinesterase in the basal lamina breaks it down. The alternatives reverse this order, misplace receptors, or assign acetylcholine release to the enzyme.

16. A resting skeletal muscle cell is being measured before stimulation. What membrane voltage is expected, and what maintains it?

About −90 mV, maintained by acetylcholinesterase
About −90 mV, maintained by the sodium–potassium pump
About +90 mV, maintained by acetylcholine receptors
About +90 mV, maintained by the sodium–potassium pump

About −90 mV, maintained by the sodium–potassium pump

Explanation

The resting membrane potential of a skeletal muscle cell is about −90 mV and is maintained by the sodium–potassium pump. A positive voltage confuses resting polarity, while acetylcholinesterase and acetylcholine receptors do not maintain the resting potential.

17. In a stimulated muscle fiber, sodium gates open and sodium enters, followed by potassium gates opening and potassium leaving. Which voltage changes result from these ion movements?

Sodium influx depolarizes the membrane, then potassium efflux repolarizes it
Sodium efflux depolarizes the membrane, then potassium influx repolarizes it
Potassium influx depolarizes the membrane, then sodium efflux repolarizes it
Potassium efflux depolarizes the membrane, then sodium influx repolarizes it

Sodium influx depolarizes the membrane, then potassium efflux repolarizes it

Explanation

Sodium entering the cell makes the interior more positive and depolarizes the membrane; potassium leaving then makes it negative again and repolarizes it. The distractors swap the ions or their directions.

18. A stimulated excitable cell undergoes a rapid voltage change from depolarization to repolarization. What is this event called?

A resting membrane potential
Depolarization
An action potential
An impulse

An action potential

Explanation

An action potential is the rapid voltage shift of depolarization followed by repolarization in a stimulated excitable cell. Resting membrane potential is a maintained state, an impulse describes propagation, and depolarization is only one phase.

19. A patient's affected muscles remain in sustained contraction rather than becoming limp and unable to contract. Which category of paralysis fits this presentation?

Spastic paralysis
Denervation atrophy
Flaccid paralysis
Resting membrane potential

Spastic paralysis

Explanation

Spastic paralysis involves sustained muscle contraction, whereas flaccid paralysis is limp muscle that cannot contract. Denervation atrophy is muscle shrinkage after loss of nerve connection, and resting membrane potential is an electrical state.

20. Which sequence names the four major phases of skeletal muscle contraction and relaxation?

Excitation, contraction, excitation–contraction coupling, relaxation
Excitation, depolarization, repolarization, contraction
Excitation–contraction coupling, excitation, relaxation, contraction
Excitation, excitation–contraction coupling, contraction, relaxation

Excitation, excitation–contraction coupling, contraction, relaxation

Explanation

The four phases proceed through excitation, excitation–contraction coupling, contraction, and relaxation. The distractors reorder the coupling or contraction phases, or substitute electrical events for the four named phases.

21. A physiologist compares tension generated by a muscle after starting from different pre-stimulation lengths. Which concept describes this dependence?

Excitation–contraction coupling
Rigor mortis
Muscle tone
The length–tension relationship

The length–tension relationship

Explanation

The length–tension relationship describes how muscle tension depends on its length before stimulation. Muscle tone is partial contraction, excitation–contraction coupling links stimulation to contraction, and rigor mortis is postmortem stiffening.

22. Two muscles are stimulated: one began overly shortened and the other overstretched. Which explanation correctly accounts for weak contraction in both?

In the shortened muscle, thick filaments butt against Z discs; in the overstretched muscle, limited overlap reduces cross-bridge formation
In both muscles, thick filaments butt against Z discs
In both muscles, limited overlap reduces cross-bridge formation
In the shortened muscle, limited overlap reduces cross-bridge formation; in the overstretched muscle, thick filaments butt against Z discs

In the shortened muscle, thick filaments butt against Z discs; in the overstretched muscle, limited overlap reduces cross-bridge formation

Explanation

Over-shortening weakens contraction because thick filaments butt against Z discs, while overstretching leaves too little filament overlap for many cross-bridges. The distractors swap these distinct causes or incorrectly apply one cause to both conditions.

23. A muscle fiber receives a stimulus that is just below the minimum voltage needed to trigger an action potential. What response should occur?

A sustained contraction is produced
A weak twitch is produced
No contraction is produced
Several motor units are recruited

No contraction is produced

Explanation

A stimulus below threshold does not generate a muscle-fiber action potential and therefore produces no contraction. A weak twitch reflects a mistaken partial-threshold idea, a sustained contraction confuses a twitch with repeated stimulation, and motor-unit recruitment concerns increasing stimulus strength above threshold.

24. A researcher increases stimulus strength to a muscle, and the muscle produces a stronger contraction because additional motor units become active. What process explains this increase?

Multiple motor unit summation
Threshold activation
Isotonic contraction
Temporal summation

Multiple motor unit summation

Explanation

Recruitment, or multiple motor unit summation, increases contraction strength by bringing more motor units into action as stimulus strength rises. Temporal summation increases tension through more frequent stimuli, isotonic contraction describes a length change, and threshold concerns activation of a muscle fiber.

25. While holding a heavy box still, a person’s arm muscles develop tension but do not change length. Which type of contraction is occurring?

Isotonic contraction
Isometric contraction
Eccentric contraction
Concentric contraction

Isometric contraction

Explanation

An isometric contraction develops internal tension without changing muscle length. Isotonic contractions involve a length change while tension remains constant; concentric and eccentric identify shortening and lengthening, respectively.

26. During a controlled descent into a squat, the quadriceps remain tense while lengthening. What kind of contraction are they performing?

Isometric contraction
Concentric contraction
Eccentric contraction
Isotonic contraction

Eccentric contraction

Explanation

An eccentric contraction occurs when a muscle lengthens while maintaining tension. Concentric contraction involves shortening under tension, isometric contraction involves no length change, and the distractor about falling tension misstates the defining condition.

27. During a brief period when oxygen delivery cannot meet a muscle’s needs, which comparison of anaerobic fermentation and aerobic respiration is accurate?

Fermentation yields little ATP and lactate; aerobic respiration needs oxygen and yields far more ATP without lactate
Fermentation yields far more ATP and lactate; aerobic respiration needs oxygen but yields little ATP
Fermentation yields little ATP without lactate; aerobic respiration needs oxygen and produces lactate
Fermentation needs oxygen and yields far more ATP; aerobic respiration works without oxygen and produces lactate

Fermentation yields little ATP and lactate; aerobic respiration needs oxygen and yields far more ATP without lactate

Explanation

Anaerobic fermentation can produce ATP without oxygen, but yields little ATP and produces lactate; aerobic respiration requires oxygen, yields far more ATP, and does not generate lactate. The alternatives reverse oxygen needs, assign lactate to the wrong pathway, or misstate their relative ATP yields.

28. A sprinter’s intense effort lasts about five seconds. Which energy system supplies nearly all of the energy for this short burst?

Aerobic respiration
The phosphagen system
The myokinase system
The glycogen–lactate system

The phosphagen system

Explanation

The phosphagen system, combining ATP and creatine phosphate, supplies nearly all energy for short bursts and supports about six seconds of sprinting. The glycogen–lactate system supports longer maximum efforts, aerobic respiration requires oxygen delivery, and myokinase is an enzyme rather than the overall system.

29. A muscle relies on anaerobic glycolysis to break down one glucose molecule during maximum effort. What net ATP yield and product should result?

30 ATP and carbon dioxide
2 ATP and no lactate
2 ATP and lactate
1 ATP and creatine phosphate

2 ATP and lactate

Explanation

Anaerobic glycolysis yields a net of two ATP per glucose and converts glucose to lactate. The much larger yield belongs to aerobic respiration, creatine phosphate is associated with the phosphagen system, and omission of lactate contradicts the pathway’s stated product.

30. After prolonged use of a muscle, a person experiences progressively worsening weakness. What is this condition called?

Muscle conditioning
Muscle atrophy
Muscle fatigue
Anaerobic threshold

Muscle fatigue

Explanation

Muscle fatigue is progressive weakness resulting from prolonged muscle use. Atrophy refers to reduced muscle size, anaerobic threshold concerns detectable lactate in blood, and conditioning describes adaptation rather than worsening weakness.

31. A long-distance runner’s postural muscles resist fatigue through oxygen-dependent ATP production, while another muscle group is adapted for quick, powerful actions using glycolysis and anaerobic fermentation. Which fiber-type pairing fits these roles?

Slow oxidative type I for rapid power; fast glycolytic type II for fatigue resistance
Fast glycolytic type II for endurance; slow oxidative type I for rapid power
Slow oxidative type I for endurance; fast glycolytic type II for rapid power
Fast glycolytic type II for endurance; slow oxidative type I for aerobic power

Slow oxidative type I for endurance; fast glycolytic type II for rapid power

Explanation

Slow oxidative type I fibers resist fatigue through aerobic ATP production, whereas fast glycolytic type II fibers support quick, powerful responses using glycolysis and anaerobic fermentation. The incorrect pairings reverse these roles or assign both types the same primary energy strategy.

32. Two muscles are otherwise comparable, but one has a larger active motor unit and receives simultaneous activation of more motor units. What can be inferred about its force-generating capacity?

It generates the same tension because muscle size is the sole factor in strength
It can generate greater tension because larger and more numerous active units increase strength
It generates greater tension only if its resting length is below optimal
It generates less tension because larger motor units recruit fewer muscle fibers

It can generate greater tension because larger and more numerous active units increase strength

Explanation

Muscular strength depends in part on the size of active motor units and multiple motor unit summation, so a larger active unit and activation of more units can increase tension. The alternatives ignore these contributors, confuse recruitment with temporal summation, or make resting length the sole condition.

33. A biopsy shows short, single-nucleated myocytes in the heart wall. Which innervation pattern is characteristic of these cells?

No neural innervation of any kind
Sensory rather than motor innervation
Autonomic rather than somatic motor innervation
Somatic motor rather than autonomic innervation

Autonomic rather than somatic motor innervation

Explanation

Cardiac myocytes are involuntary and receive autonomic rather than somatic motor innervation; somatic motor input is characteristic of skeletal muscle, while the other choices mistake autonomic control for absent or sensory innervation.

34. During sustained activity, what characteristic enables the muscle cells in a heart chamber to keep expelling blood effectively?

Intermittent contractions prevent the chamber's cells from contracting together
Brief contractions rely on fatigue to maintain blood ejection
Rapid, isolated twitches let each cell expel blood independently
Rhythmic, fatigue-resistant contractions coordinate cells long enough to expel blood

Rhythmic, fatigue-resistant contractions coordinate cells long enough to expel blood

Explanation

Cardiac muscle contracts rhythmically, resists fatigue, and coordinates cells within each chamber so they contract in unison long enough to expel blood. Isolated or brief twitches misstate this coordinated, sustained function, and cardiac muscle is fatigue-resistant.

35. In a cardiac tissue sample, neighboring cardiomyocytes exchange electrical signals, while their attachments also resist separation during contraction. Which structures perform these two roles?

Sarcoplasmic reticulum conducts signals; gap junctions hold cells together
Mechanical junctions conduct signals; gap junctions hold cells together
T tubules conduct signals; mechanical junctions hold cells together
Gap junctions conduct signals; mechanical junctions hold cells together

Gap junctions conduct signals; mechanical junctions hold cells together

Explanation

Intercalated discs contain gap junctions that electrically connect neighboring cardiomyocytes and mechanical junctions that prevent them from pulling apart. Reversing those functions or substituting intracellular structures confuses cell-to-cell junctions with other cell components.

36. A heart continues to generate rhythmic contractions despite a temporary loss of nervous stimulation. What mechanism best explains this?

Mechanical junctions create electrical waves between heart chambers
Autonomic nerves generate every rhythmic wave that triggers contraction
A built-in pacemaker generates rhythmic waves of electrical excitation
Somatic motor neurons initiate each contraction in sequence

A built-in pacemaker generates rhythmic waves of electrical excitation

Explanation

A built-in pacemaker generates electrical waves that allow cardiac muscle to contract rhythmically without nervous stimulation. Autonomic input can modify cardiac activity, but it is not required to generate the basic rhythm; the other choices misattribute rhythm generation to skeletal innervation or mechanical attachments.

37. Which structural description best identifies a smooth muscle myocyte?

A fusiform cell with one central nucleus and unaligned thick and thin filaments
A fusiform cell with multiple peripheral nuclei and aligned sarcomeres
A branched cell with one central nucleus and aligned sarcomeres
A long cylindrical cell with multiple peripheral nuclei and aligned filaments

A fusiform cell with one central nucleus and unaligned thick and thin filaments

Explanation

Smooth muscle myocytes are fusiform, have one central nucleus, and contain thick and thin filaments that are not aligned into sarcomeres. The alternatives import skeletal-muscle traits or incorrectly place smooth-muscle filaments into sarcomeres.

38. In a tissue sample, nerve branches contact individual myocytes, and each motor unit contracts independently. Which smooth muscle type is present?

Cardiac muscle
Skeletal muscle
Multiunit smooth muscle
Single-unit smooth muscle

Multiunit smooth muscle

Explanation

Multiunit smooth muscle has nerve branches that synapse with individual myocytes, and its motor units contract independently. Single-unit smooth muscle instead electrically couples cells through gap junctions so many contract together; the remaining choices are different muscle types.

39. After an injury to smooth muscle, which combination of properties best describes its capacity for recovery and contraction?

It regenerates well but contracts rapidly and fatigues readily
It regenerates poorly but contracts slowly without fatigue
It can regenerate well and contract slowly while sustaining tension without fatigue
It regenerates poorly and contracts rapidly before fatiguing

It can regenerate well and contract slowly while sustaining tension without fatigue

Explanation

Smooth muscle can undergo mitosis and hyperplasia, regenerates well after injury, and contracts more slowly than skeletal or cardiac muscle while sustaining contraction without fatigue. The alternatives misstate its regeneration, contraction speed, or fatigue resistance.

40. A smooth muscle preparation contracts after it is stretched, even without a change in nerve activity. Which stimulus listed as a regulator can explain this response?

Changes in oxygen or pH
Autonomic activity
Hormonal signaling
Stretch

Stretch

Explanation

Smooth muscle can respond to stretch as well as autonomic activity, hormones, gases, pH, temperature, and autorhythmicity. The other choices are also regulatory inputs, but they do not describe the stated mechanical stimulus.

41. In a smooth muscle cell, calcium has entered from extracellular fluid. Which sequence enables myosin to drive filament sliding?

Calcium binds troponin, activating myosin light-chain kinase to phosphorylate myosin; myosin ATPase then hydrolyzes ATP
Calcium binds calmodulin, inhibiting myosin light-chain kinase until myosin ATPase phosphorylates myosin
Calcium binds calmodulin, activating myosin light-chain kinase to hydrolyze ATP before myosin is phosphorylated
Calcium binds calmodulin, activating myosin light-chain kinase to phosphorylate myosin; myosin ATPase then hydrolyzes ATP

Calcium binds calmodulin, activating myosin light-chain kinase to phosphorylate myosin; myosin ATPase then hydrolyzes ATP

Explanation

Calcium binds calmodulin, which activates myosin light-chain kinase to phosphorylate a regulatory protein on myosin; myosin ATPase then hydrolyzes ATP to enable filament sliding. Troponin is the skeletal-muscle confusion, while the other choices reverse or misassign steps in the sequence.

42. A hollow-organ smooth muscle remains capable of powerful contraction after being stretched to twice its resting length. Which structural features explain this ability?

It lacks Z discs but has sarcomeres, and myosin heads occur only at filament ends
It has Z discs but lacks sarcomeres, and myosin heads occur along the thick filaments
It lacks Z discs and sarcomeres, and myosin heads occur along the thick filaments
It has Z discs and sarcomeres, with myosin heads distributed along the thick filaments

It lacks Z discs and sarcomeres, and myosin heads occur along the thick filaments

Explanation

Smooth muscle can contract powerfully from half to twice its resting length because it lacks Z discs and sarcomeres, and myosin heads extend along the thick filaments. Z discs can obstruct shortening, while sarcomere organization and end-limited myosin heads do not match the mechanisms described.

43. Which description best defines muscular dystrophy?

A group of disorders causing temporary skeletal-muscle fatigue without tissue replacement
An autoimmune disease causing reduced muscle sensitivity through loss of acetylcholine receptors
An inflammatory condition causing muscle swelling without progressive muscle degeneration
A group of hereditary diseases causing skeletal-muscle degeneration, weakness, and replacement by fat and fibrous scar tissue

A group of hereditary diseases causing skeletal-muscle degeneration, weakness, and replacement by fat and fibrous scar tissue

Explanation

Muscular dystrophy refers to hereditary diseases in which skeletal muscles degenerate and weaken, with fat and fibrous scar tissue replacing muscle. The autoimmune-receptor distractor describes myasthenia gravis; the fatigue and inflammation distractors mischaracterize the tissue changes.

44. A patient’s antibodies bind acetylcholine receptors together in clusters at neuromuscular junctions, making muscle fibers less sensitive to acetylcholine. Which disorder best fits this mechanism?

Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Muscular dystrophy
Myasthenia gravis
Cholinesterase-inhibitor action

Myasthenia gravis

Explanation

In myasthenia gravis, antibodies attack neuromuscular junctions and cluster acetylcholine receptors, reducing muscle-fiber sensitivity to acetylcholine. Cholinesterase inhibitors prolong acetylcholine activity, while the other distractors concern hereditary muscle degeneration or defective dystrophin.

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Lock in the answers with 92 flashcards on Muscular Tissue.

What are the three types of muscular tissue?

Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle.

Which five properties do all muscle types exhibit?

Excitability, conductivity, contractility, extensibility, and elasticity.

What characterizes skeletal muscle in control, appearance, and attachment?

It is voluntary, striated, and usually attached to bones.

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